To what degree are drunk drivers culpable for their actions? If an innocent person is killed as a consequence of their impairment should they be tried for first-degree (pre-meditated) murder, or does intention matter? Whereas a murderer cold-bloodedly intends to kill his victim, in the case of a drunk driver the death is accidental. Consider: although the driver (A) is clearly negligent, he’s effectively committed the same crime as someone (B) who drinks and drives but gets home safely. From a moral perspective, it could be argued that the only difference between the actions of “A” and “B” is luck.
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