Discuss if you think that dividends should be paid to policyholders who have borrowed all their cash value? If you believe that dividends should be the same for non borrowers if the insurer can earn substantially more income on the money it invests that on the money it invests than on the policyholder-loan charge?

Discuss if you think that dividends should be paid to policyholders who have borrowed all their cash value? If you believe that dividends should be the same for non borrowers if the insurer can earn substantially more income on the money it invests that on the money it invests than on the policyholder-loan charge?

Requirements:
* The responses should contribute to the topic and discussion and not merely voice agreement or dissent.
* Your original post should be approximately 200+ words.
* APA formatting standards, correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation, and cited references are expected.

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